1.If the applied voltage of a certain transformer is increased hr 50% and the frequency is reduced to 50% (assuming that the magnetic circuit remains unsaturated), the maximum core flax density will
(a) change to three times the original value
(b) change to 1.5 times the original value
(c) change to 0.5 times as the original value
(d) remain the same as the original value
2. The low—voltage winding of a core type transformer is subdivided into two equal halves, each of half the original width of the single winding will the high voltage winding in between (instead of having the usual construction of low-voltage winding adjacent to the core and surrounded by the high-voltage winding). Such an interlacing of coils would make the combined primary and secondary leakage reactance (in terms of primary) nearly.
(a)twice
(b) equal
(c)half
(d) one -fourth
3. Two 3-limb, 3-phase delta-star connected transformers are supplied from the same source. One of the transformers is of. Dy I and the other is of Dy II / connection. The phase difference between the corresponding phase voltages of the secondaries would he
(a) 0°
(b) 30°
(c) 60°
(d) 120°
4. In a transformer fed from a fundamental frequency voltage source, the source of harmonics k the
(a) overload
(b) poor insulation
(c) iron loss
(d) saturation of core
5. A 40 kVA transformer/ a core loss of400 W and a full load copper of of 800 W. The proportion of full-load at maximum efficiency is
(a)50%
(b) 62.3%
(c) 70.7%
(d)100 %
6.A single phase transformer has rating of 15 KVA 600 / 120 V. It is recommended as an auto transformer to supply at 720 V from a 600 V primary source. The maximum load it can supply is ?
(a)90 kVA
(b)18 kVA
(c)15 kVA
(d) 12 kVA
7. Equalizing pulses in TV are placed during the
(a) vertical blanking period
(b) horizontal blanking period
(c)serration
(d) horizontal retrace
8. The most useful approach to radar system for monitoring the speed of moving vehicles is:
(a) Pulsed radar
(b) Monopulse
(c)Doppler radar
(d) Auto tracking radar
9. A. dc shunt generator, when driven at its rated speed, is found to he not generating any voltage. Which of the following would account for this?
I. There is no residual magnetism
2. The connection of the field winding is not proper with respect to the armature terminals.
3. The resistance of the field circuit is greater than the critical field resistance.
4. The load resistance is less than the critical armature resistance.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a)3 and 4
(b)l,2 and 4
(c)1,2 and 3
(d)l.2,3 and 4
10. To have spark/as commutation, the armature reaction effect in a dc machine is neutralised by
(a) using compensating winding and commutating poles
(b) Shifting the brush axis from the geometrical neutral axis to the magnetic neutral axis
(c) fixing the brush axis in line with the pole axis
(d) increasing the field excitation
11.In a dc shunt general or working on load, the brushes are moved forward in the direction of rotation, as a result of this, commutation will
(a)improve but terminal voltage will fall -
(b)worsen and terminal voltage will fall
(c) improve and terminal voltage will rise
(d) worsen and terminal voltage will rise
12. Consider the following statements:
The maximum range of radar can be increased by
1. increasing the peak transmitted power
2. increasing the gain of the receiver
3. increasing the diameter of the antenna
4. reducing the wavelength used
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d)1 and 3 are correct
13. Consider the following statements about broadband communication using submarine cables:
1. A submarine cable repeater contains filters for the two directions of transmits
2. Armored submarine cable is used for the shallow-shore ends of the cable.
3. Fibre optic submarine cable is used to prevent inadvertent ploughing in of the cable
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 1 and 3 are correct
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
14. A dc overcompounded generator was operating satisfactorily and supplying power to an infinite bus when the prime mover failed to supply any mechanical power. The machine would then run as a ?
(a) cumulatively compounded motor with speed reversed
(b) cumulatively compounded motor with direction of rotation as before
(c) differentially compounded motor with speed reversed
(d) differentially compounded motor with direction of speed as before.
15 To couple a coaxial line to a parallel wire line, It is best to use a
(a) slotted line
(b) balun
(c)directional coupler
(a) quarter-wave transformer
16. When a synchronous motor is running at synchronous speed, the damper winding produces
(a) damping toruqe
(b) eddy current torque
(c)torques aiding the developing torque
(d) no torque
17. For a given developed power, a synchronous motor operating from a constant voltage and constant frequency supply, will draw the minimum and maximum armature currents, Imin and Imax respectively, corresponding to?
(a)Imin at unity pf, but Imax at zero pf
(b) Imax at unity p, but Imin at zero p1
(c) both Imin and Imax at unity pf
(d )both Imin and Imax at zero pf
18. Consider the folio wing statements regarding an RC phase-shift oscillator:
1. The amplifier gain is positive
2. The amplifier gain is negative.
3. The phase shift introduced by the feedback network is 180
4. The phase shift introduced by the feedback network is 360
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 3 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
19 While conducting a “slip “ test for determination of direct and quadrature axis synchronous reactance ‘Xd’ and ‘Xq’ of salient pole synchronous machine, the rotor of the machine is run with a slip ‘s’ and stator supply frequency ‘f’. The frequency of
1. voltage induced across open field terminals,
2. envelope of the armature terminal voltage.
3. envelope of the armature current, and
4. armature current
will be respectively
(a) sf, sf,sf and f
(b) sf, f,sf and f
(c) f, sf,f and af
(d) f, (1-s)f,(2-s)f and sf
20. If two induction motors A and B are identical except that the air-gap of motor ‘A ‘ is 59% greater than that of motor ‘B’, then
(a) the no-load power factor of A will be better than that of B.
(b) the no-load power factor of A will be poorer than that of B.
(c) the core losses of A will be more than those of B
(d) the operating flux of A will be smaller than that of B.
21 A 6-pole, 50 Hz, 3-phase synchronous motor and an 8-pole, 50 Hz. 3—phase slipring induction motor are mechanically coupled and operate on the some 3-phase, 50 Hz supply system If they are left open-circuited, then the frequency of the voltage produced across any two slip rings would be?
(a) 12.5 Hz
(b) 25.0 Hz
(c) 37.5 Hz
(d) 50.0 Hz
22. Which of the following statements regarding skewing of motor bars in a squirrel-cage induction motor are correct?
I. It prevents cogging;
2. It produces more uniform torque.
3. it increases starting torque.
4. It reduces motor ‘hum’ during its operation.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
Codes:
(a)2,3 and 4
(b) l,2 and 3
(c)1,3 and 4
(d) l,2 and 4
23. The rotor power output of a 3-phase induction motor is 15kW and the corresponding slip is 4%. The rotor copper loss will be
(a) 600 W
(b) 625 W
(c) 650 W
(d) 700 W
24. If an input signal with non-zero dc component is applied to a low pass RC network, the dc component in the output will be ?
(a) the same as that in the input
(b) less than that in the input
(c) more than that in the input
(d) zero
25. A 3 phase wound rotor induction motor, when started with load connected to its shaft, was found to start but settle down at about half synchronous speed. If the rotor winding as well as the stator winding were star connected, then the cause of the malfunction could be attributed to
(a) one of the stator phase windings being short–circuited
(b) one of the supply fuses being blown
(c) one of the rotor phases being open-circuited
(d) two of the rotor phases being open circuited
26. Consider the following statements regarding fractional horse power shaded-pole motor:
1. Its direction of rotation is from unshaded to shaded portion of the poles.
2.. Its direction of rotation is from shaded to unshaded portion of the poles.
3. It can remain stalled for short periods without any harm.
4. It has a very poor power factor.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
(c) 2 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 3 are correct
27. In the case of a converter-inverter speed control arrangement f an induction motor operating with v/f constant and with negligible stator impedance.
(a) the maximum torque is independent of frequency
(b) the maximum torque is proportional to frequency
(c) the slip at maximum torque is proportional to frequency
(d) the starting torque is proportional to frequency
28 An amplifier with mid-band gain A = 500 has negative feedback beta = 1/100 the upper cut-off without feedback were at 60 kHz, then with feedback it would become
(a) 10kHz
(b) 12kHz
(c) 300 kHz
(d) 360 kHz
29. If the discharge is 1 m cube and the head of water is 1 m then the power generated by the alternator in one hour (assume 100% efficiency of generator and turbine) will be
(a) 10kW
(b) 73/75kW
(c) 746/75kW
(d) 100kw
30. Control rods used In unclear reactors are made of
(a) zirconium
(b) boron
(c) beryllium
(d) lead
31. if alpha = 0.98, Ico=6 microA I beta =100 microA for a transistor, Then the value of Ic will he
(a) 2.3mA
(b) 3.lmA
(c) 4.6mA
(d) 5.2mA
32. In a 3-core extra-high voltage cable, a metallic screen around each core-insulation is provided to
(a) facilitate heat dissipation
(h) give mechanic strength
(c) obtain radial electric stress
(d) obtain longitudinal electric stress
33. Galloping In transmission line conductors arises generally due to
(a) asymmetrical layers of ice formation
(b) vortex phenomenon in light winds
(c) heavy weight of the line conductors
(d) adoption of horizontal conductor configurations
34.. In a 3- phase rectifier circuit, thyristor number 1, 2 and 3 are connected respectively to R, Y and B phases of the star-connected transformer secondary. When the current is being commutated front thyristor No. 1 to No. 2, the effect of the transformer leakage and the ac system Inductance will be such that it will?
(a) Prolong the conduction in No. 1 and delay the turn on of No. 2 correspondingly.
(b) stop the conduction in No. 1 at the scheduled time, but delay the turn on of No. 2
(c) produce conduction in both No. 1 and No. 2 in parallel for an overlapping period through a transient
(d) double the voltage output through a commutation transient
35. The incremental generating costs of two generating units are given by
IC1=0.10 X + 20 Rs /MWhr
IC1=0.15 Y + 18 Rs /MWhr
where X and V are power generated by the two units in MW.
For a total demand of 300 MW, the value (in MW) of X and Y will be respectively
(a) 172 and 123
(b) 123 and 172
(c) 175 and 125
(d) 200 and 100
36. Consider the following statements:
To provide reliable protection for a distribution transformer against over voltages using lightning arrestors, it is essential that the
1. lead resistance is high.
2. distance between the transformer and the arrestor is small
3. transformer and the arrestor have a common inter-connecting ground.
4. Spark over voltage of the arrestor is greater than the residual voltage.
Of these statements
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
(c)2, 3 and 4 are correct
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
37. The reflection coefficient of a short-circuited line is
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) zero
38.Iif an intrinsic semiconductors is doped with a very small amount of born then in the extrinsic semiconductor so farmed, the number of electrons and holes will
(a)decrease
(b) increase and decrease respectively
(c)increase
(d) decrease and increase respectively
39. Hollow conductors are used in transmission lines to
(a) reduce weight of copper
(b) improve stability
(c) reduce corona
(d) increase power transmission capacity
40. In the solution of load-flow equation, Newton-Raphson (NR) method is superior to the Gauss- Seidel (GS) method, because the
(a) time taken to perform one iteration in the NR method is less When compared to the time taken in the OS method
(b) number of iterations required in the NR method is more when compared to that in the GS method
(c) number of iterations required is not independent of the size of the system in the NR method
(d) convergence characteristics of the NR method are not affected by the selection of slack bus
41. In a synchronous generator, a divided winding rotor is preferable to a conventional winding rotor because of
(a) higher efficiency
(b) increased steady-state stability limit
(c) higher short-circuit ratio
(d) better damping
42. Consider the following statements regarding speed control of induction motors by means of external rotor resistors:
1. Reduction in speed is accompanied by reduced efficiency.
2. With a large resistance in the rotor circuit, the speed would vary considerably with variation in torque
3. The method is very complicated
The Disadvantages of such a method of speed control would include
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
43. Zero sequence currents can flow from a line into a transformer bank if the windings are in ?
(a) grounded star/delta
(b) delta/star
(c) star/grounded star
(d) delta/delta
44. When a line to ground fault occurs, the current in a faulted phase is 100 A. The Zero Sequence current in this case will be
(a) zero
(b) 33.3 A
(c) 66.6A
(d) 100 A
45. Consider the following statements:
Switched mode power supplies are preferred over the continuous types, because they are
1. suitable for use in both ac and dc.
2; more efficient,
3. suitable for low-power circuits.
4. suitable for high-power circuits.
Of these statements
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
(b) 1 and 3 are correct
(c) 2 and 3 are correct
(d) 2 and 4 are correct
46. The power generated by two plants are P1 = 50MW, P2= 40 MW.
If the loss coefficients are B11 = 0.001, B22 = 0.0025 and B12 = -0.0005, the power loss will be
(a)5.5 MW
(b) 6.5 MW
(c) 4.5Mw
(d) 8.5 MW
47. In dc choppers, per unit ripple is maximum when then duty cycle is?
(a) 0.2
(b) 0.5
(c) 0.7
(d) 0.9
48. The following data pertain to two alternators working in parallel and supplying a total load of 80 MW:
Machine 1 : 40 MVA with 5% speed regulation
Machine 2: 60 MVA with 5% speed regulation
The load sharing between machines 1 and 2 will be
(a)P1/48MW, P2/32MW
(b) 40MW. 40MW
(c)30MW,50MW
(d) 32 MW. 48MW
49. The per unit impedance of a synchronous machine is 0.242. If the base voltage is Increased by 1.1 times, the per unit value will be
(a)0.266
(b) 0.242
(c)0.220
(d) 0.200
50. A 3-pulse converter feeds a pure resistive load at a firing angle of alpha = 60°. The average value of current flowing in the load is 10 A, If a very large inductance is connected in the load circuit, then the
(a) average value of current will remain as 10 A
(b) average value of current wilt become greater than 10 A
(c) average value of current will become less than 10 A
(d) trend of variation of current cannot be predicted unless the exact value of the inductance connected is known
Answers
| 1 | a |
| 2 | c |
| 3 | c |
| 4 | d |
| 5 | c |
| 6 | a |
| 7 | a |
| 8 | c |
| 9 | c |
| 10 | a |
| 11 | a |
| 12 | b |
| 13 | c |
| 14 | d |
| 15 | b |
| 16 | d |
| 17 | a |
| 18 | b |
| 19 | c |
| 20 | a |
| 21 | b |
| 22 | c |
| 23 | b |
| 24 | a |
| 25 | a |
| 26 | b |
| 27 | a |
| 28 | d |
| 29 | d |
| 30 | b |
| 31 | d |
| 32 | a |
| 33 | a |
| 34 | c |
| 35 | a |
| 36 | c |
| 37 | a |
| 38 | d |
| 39 | c |
| 40 | d |
| 41 | b |
| 42 | a |
| 43 | a |
| 44 | b |
| 45 | c |
| 46 | a |
| 47 | b |
| 48 | c |
| 49 | d |
| 50 | b |
1. The ratio of the ages of Meena and Meera is 4 : 3. The sum of their ages is 28 years. The ratio of their ages after 8 years will be:
(a)4:3
(b)12:11
{c)7:4
(d) 6:5
2. The ages of Ram and shyam are in the ratio of 3 : 5. After 9 years,the ratio of their ages will becomes 3 :4. The present age of shyam (inyears) is :
(a) 9
(b) 15
(c) 18
(d) 24
3.The ratio of the ages of Swati and Vani is 2 : 5. After 8 years, their ages will be in the ratio of 1: 2. The difference in their present ages (in years) is :
(a)24
(b) 26
(c) 29
(d) 32
4.A father is twice as old as his son. 20 years ago, the age of the father was 12 times the age of the son. The present age of the father (in years) is:
( a)44
(b) 32
(c) 22
(d) 45
5.Five years ago, the total of the ages of a father and his son was 40 years.
The ratio of their present ages is 4: 1. What is the present age of the father?
(a) 30 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 25 years
(d) None of these
6. One year ago, Mrs Promila was four times as old as her daughter Swati. Six years hence, Mrs Promila’ s age will exceed her daugther’ s age by 9 years. The ratio of the present ages of Promila and her daughter is:
(a)9:2
(b) 11:3
(c) 12:5
(d)13:4
7.Sachin was twice as old as Ajay 10 years back. How old is AJAY if Sachin will be 40 years old 10 years hence?
(A) 20 years
(b) 10 years
(c) 30 years
(D)None of these
8. . Ten years ago A was half of B in age. If the ratio of their present ages is 3 : 4, what will be the total of their present ages ?
(a)8 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 30 years
(D) 35 years
9. . Sushil was thrice as old as Snehal 6 years back. Sushil will be times as old as Snehal 6 years hence. How old is Snehal today?
(a)18 years
(b) 24 years
(c)12 years
(d) 15 years
10.The total of the ages of A, B and C at present is 90 years. Ten years ago, the ratio of their ages was 1: 2: 3. What is the age of B at present?
(a)40 years
(b)30 years
(c) 20 years
(d) 1 8years
11.. The sum of the ages of A, B and C is 96 years:To find out B’s age, which of the following information given in the statements P and Q is/are sufficient?
P : A is 6 years older than C
Q : The total of B and C’s a is 56 years.
(a)P
(b) Q
(c) both P and Q
(d) None of these
12 Sneh’s age is 1/6th of her father’s age Sneh s father’s age will be twice Of Vimal’s age after 10 years. If Vimal’ s eighth birthday was celebrated two years before, then what is Sneh’ s present age?
(a)24 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 6 years
(d) None of these
13. Jayesh is as much younger to Anil as he is older to Prashant, If the sum of the ages of Anil and Prashant is 48 years, what is the age
of Jayesh?
(a) 20 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 24 years
(d) Can not be determined
14. The sum of the ages of a father and son is 45 years. Five years ago,the product of their ages was four times the father’s age at that time.
The present age of father and son, respectively are:
(a)25 years, 10 years
(b) 36 years, 9 years
(c)39 years, 6 years
(d) None of these
15. KÃ mla got married 6 years ago. Today her age is 1.25 times her age at the time of marriage Her son’s age is 1/10 times her age Her son’ s age
is:
a) 2 years.
(b) 3 years.
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years
16. Ten years ago, Chandrawati’s mother was four times older than her daughter. After ten years, the mother will be twice older than daughter. The present age of Chandrawati is: ?
(a)5 years
(b) 10 years
(c)4 years
(d) 30 years
17. In 10 years, A will be twice as old B was 10 years ago. If A is now
9 years older than B,B is presently how many years old?
(a)19 years
(b) 29years
(c) 39 years
(d)49 years
18. Two years ago a man was 6 times as old as his son. After 18 years,
he will be twice as old as his son. Their present ages (in years) are:
(a)32,7
(b)34, 9
(c) 36,11
(d) None of these
19.The ages of two persons differ by 20 years. If 5 years ago, the elder one be 5 times as old as the younger one, their present ages (in years) are respectively
(a)30,10
(b) 25, 5
(c) 29, 9
(d) 50, 30
20.. Pushpa is twice as old as Rita was 2 years ago. If the difference of their ages.be 2 years, bow old is Pushpa today?
(a)6 years
(b)8 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 12 years
21.Average age of A and B is 24 years and average age of B, C and D is
22 ears. The sum of the ages of A, B, C and D is: ?
(a)90 years
(b) 96 years
(c)114 years
(d) Data inadequate
22.. Ratio of Ashok’s age to Sandeep’s age is 4 : 3. Ashok will be 26 years old after 6 years How old is Sandeep now?
(a)12 years
(b)15 years
(C) 19 years
(d) 21 years
23.The ratio of kunal’s age and Aruna’s age is 3 5 and the sum of their age is 80 years.
The ratio of their ages after 10 years will be:
(a)2 : 3
(b) 1: 2
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 3: 5
24.. The average age of 12 students is 20 years. If the age of one more student is included, the average decreases by 1. What is the age of the new student?
(a)5 years
(b)7years
(c) 9 years
(d)11 years
25.. The average age of an adult class is 40 years. Twelve new studenta with an average age of 32 years join the class, thereby decreasing the average of the class by 4 years. The original strength of the class was:
(a)10
(b)11
(c)12
(d) 15
Answers
| 1 | d |
| 2 | b |
| 3 | c |
| 4 | a |
| 5 | d |
| 6 | d |
| 7 | a |
| 8 | d |
| 9 | c |
| 10 | b |
| 11 | c |
| 12 | d |
| 13 | c |
| 14 | b |
| 15 | b |
| 16 | c |
| 17 | c |
| 18 | a |
| 19 | a |
| 20 | b |
| 21 | b |
| 22 | b |
| 23 | a |
| 24 | b |
| 25 | c |
1. ‘Please’ and ‘Thank you’ are the little courtesies by which we keep the…….. of life oiled and running smoothly.
(a) river
(b) garden
(c) path
(d) machine
2. The bright colour of this shirt has………. away.
(a) gone
(b) disappeared
(c) faded
(d) paled
3. One major ……….between the Election Commission and the Union Government is related to the powers of the former in respect of the deployment of central police forces at places where an election isheld.
(a) conflict (b) pain
(c) irritant (d) culprit
4.Even a ………glance will reveal the mystery
(a)crude
(b)cursory
(c) critical
(d) curious
5. His standard of living has……. since his son joined service.
(a) lifted
(b) increased
(c) risen
(d) heightened
6. The passengers were afraid but the captain …….them that there was no
danger.
(a) instructed
(b) advised
(c) promised
(d) assured
7. His first failure did not…… him from making another attempt.
(a) interfere
(b) forbid
(c) frighten
(d) deter
8. No one will ……….. you for having been rude to your teacher.
(a) exclaim
(b) admire
(c) advise
(d) recommend
9.The doctor …….. the patient from taking certain medicines.
(a) banned
(b) prohibited
(c) prescribed
(d) proscribed
10.I ……..a car to be absolutely necessary these days.
(a) think
(b)regard
(c) consider
(d) agree
11. He didn’t have the……….. idea of villager’s problems.
(a) smallest
(b)finest
(c) faintest
(d) feeblest
12. This is a………… translation of the speech.
(a) verbatim
(b)verbal
(c) literal
(d) literary
13.The news of the secret deal soon despite official silence.
(a) discovered
(b) disclosed
(c)leaked out
(d) divulged
14. No man had a more ………..love for literature, or a higher respect for it, than
Samuel Johnson.
(a)arduous
(b) ardent
(c) animated
(d) adroit
15.I have often ………why he went to live abroad.
(a) puzzled
(b) wondered
(c) thought
(d) surprised
16.He lives near ……………a lonely of countryside.
(a) piece
(b) length
(c) stretch
(d) section
17. To nobody else did the story seem ………
(a) contingent
(b) credible
(c) credulous
(d) creditable
18. The transfer of territories could not take place because one state ……………..the findings
of the Commission.
(a) objected
(b) questioned
(c)rejected
(d) disputed
19.Anticipating renewed rioting, the authorities erected …………….to block off the
streets.
(a) dykes
(b) barrages
(c) barricades
(d) barracks
20.When their examinations were over, the children gleefully……. the books they
had been reading.
(a) despised
(b) neglected
(c) shelve
(d)overthrow
Answers
| 1 | d |
| 2 | c |
| 3 | a |
| 4 | b |
| 5 | c |
| 6 | d |
| 7 | d |
| 8 | b |
| 9 | b |
| 10 | c |
| 11 | c |
| 12 | c |
| 13 | c |
| 14 | b |
| 15 | b |
| 16 | c |
| 17 | b |
| 18 | d |
| 19 | c |
| 20 | b |
1. What does infant mortality rate refer to?
(a) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 1000 live births
(b) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of every 100 live births
(c) The ratio of number of children who die before their fifth birthday out of every 100 live births
(d) The ratio of number of children who die before their first birthday out of everyl000 live births
Ans. (d)
2. Which among the following is not a committed expenditure of the Government of India?
(a) Interest payments
(b) Pay and allowances
(c) Transfers to States and Union Territories
(d) Loans and advances to States and Union Territories
Ans. (d)
3. Consider the following statements:
A. Annual Survey of Industries (ASI) extends to the entire country
B. ASI covers all factories registered under Sections 2m (i) and 2m (ii) of the Factories Act 1948.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
4. Who was the Chairman of the committee appointed in 2006 for setting out a roadmap towards fuller capital account convertibility?
(a) S.S. Tarapore
(c) C. Rangarajan
(d) M. Narasimham
(d) O.P. Sodhani
Ans. (a)
5. In which of the following years, was the trade balance favorable to India?
(a) 1970-71 and 1974-75
(b) 1972-73 and 1976-77
(c) 1972-73 and 1975-76
(d) 1971-72 and 1976-77
Ans. (b)
6. Consider the following statements:
A. The Fifth Economic Census was conducted by CSO in the year 2007.
B. Intelligent Character Recognition (ICR) technology is being used for detailed processing of the data collected in the Fifth Economic Census.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
7. During which of the following years, average growth/rate (at constant prices) of agriculture and allied sectors negative?
(a) 2002-03
(b) 2003-04
(c) 2005-06
(d) 2006-07
Ans. (a)
8. Which of the following are the goals of Santa Shiksha Abhiyan (SSA)?
A. All children of 6-14 years age in school/EGS (Education Guarantee Scheme) Centre/bridge course by the year 2015.
B. Bridge all gender and social category gaps at primary stage by the year 2007 and at elementary education level by the year 2010.
C. Universal retention by the year 2020.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (a)
9. Consider the following:
A. Kennedy Round of negotiations.
B. Uruguay Round of negotiations.
C. Tokyo Round of negotiations.
Which is the correct chronological sequence of the
above?
(a) A, B, C
(b) C, A, B
(c) A, C, B
(d) B, A, C
Ans. (a)
10. Why is demographic dividend likely to be manifested in India in future?
(a) Population in the age group between 8-15 years is likely to increase
(b) Population of children below 7 years is likely to increase
(c) Population in the age group of 15-64 years is likely to increase
(d) Population in the age group above 65 years is likely to increase
Ans. (c)
11. Which one of the following is not the target stipulated in the Tenth Five-Year Plan?
(a) Creating 50 million job opportunities
(b) Reduction in poverty ratio from 26 percent to 21 percent
(c) Reducing gender gaps in literacy and wages rates by 50 percent
(d) Doubling per capita income in 8 years
Ans. (d)
12. Consider the following items which are assigned weight in calculating wholesale price index in India
1. Primary articles
2. Fuel, power light and lubricants
3. Food products
4. Chemicals and chemical products
Which one of the following is the correct order of the above items in descending order in terms of their weight in the price index?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 4-3-2-1
(d) 1-3-2-4
Ans. (b)
113. Consider the following components of financial saving of the household sector in India
1. Currency
2. Deposits
3. Shares and debentures
4. Insurance funds
Which one of the following is the correct order of the aforesaid items in descending order in terms of their contribution to the financial saving of the household sector in the year 2005-06?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 2-4-1-3
(d) 4-2-l-3
Ans. (b)
14. What is the approximate share of SSIs in gross industrial value added in the Indian economy?
(a) 25%
(b) 30%
(c) 40%
(d) 45%
Ans. (d)
15.Consider the following sectors, contributing to India’s real GDP during the year 2005-06:
1. Agriculture and allied activities
2. Industry
3. Construction
4. Community social and personal services
Which one of the following is the correct descending order in respect of their contribution?
(a) 1-4-3-2 .
(b) 1-2-4-3
(c) 3-4-2-1
(d) 3-2-1-4
Ans. (c)
16. The 12th Finance Commission has recommended to bring down the revenue deficit of the centre and states to zero by which year?
(a) 2006- 07
(b) 2007- 08
(c) 2008- 09
(d) 2009 -10
Ans. (c)
17. In which of the following years, the share of FIL (net) flows into Indian economy was the highest?
(a) 1999-2000
(b) 2000-01
(c) 2003-04
(d) 2004-05
Ans. (d)
18. Among different items of import of capital goods to India during the year 2005-06, which one of the following was the highest in the value terms ?
(a) Machine tools
(b) Electronic goods including computer software
(c) Transport equipments
(d) Project goods
Ans. (a)
19. Among the items of export of agricultural and allied products from India during the year 2005-06, which one of the following was the highest in the value
(a) Tea
(b Coffee
(c) Rice
(d) Marine products
Ans. (c)
20. Consider the follow important sources of tax revenue for the Central Government
1. Corporation tax
2. Taxes on income other than corporation tax
3. Union excise duties
4. Service tax
Which one of the following is the correct order of the aforesaid taxes in descending order in terms of their yield as proposed in the Union Budget 2006-07?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 1-3-2-4
(c) 2-3-1-4
(d) 4-2-3-1
Ans. (b)
21. The Twelfth Finance Commission has recommended States’ share in the divisible pool of taxes at what percentage?
(a) 26.5 percent
(b) 28.5 percent
(c) 29.5 percent
(d) 303 percent
Ans. (c)
22. Consider the following statements about the National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS):
1. The scheme has been implemented from Rabi 1999-2000 season.
2. The scheme is availab1a non-loanee farmers only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
23. In the total deployment of gross bank credit, which one of the following sectors had the maximum share as in March, 2006?
(a) Agriculture and allied activities
(b) Services
(c) Personal loan
(d) Trade
Ans. (a)
24. As per use-based classification, which one of the following sectors had recorded highest growth in the year 2005-06?
(a) Basic goods
(b) Capital goods
(c) Consumer goods
(d) Intermediate goods
Ans. (b)
25. In which one of the following years, the National Food Processing Policy was formulated?
(a) 2003
(b) 2004
(c) 2005
(d) 2006
Ans. (c)
26. Consider the following statements:
Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme (AIBP) was modified in the year 2004 to provide
1. the central assistance in the form of 70 percent loan and 30 percent grant for non-special category states.
2. the central assistance in the form of 10 percent loan and 90 percent grant for special category states.
3. the central assistance in the form of conversion of the loan to grant if projects are completed on schedule.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
27. The Command Area Development Programme (CADP) has been renamed as which one of the following?
(a) Command Area Development and Water Management Programme
(b) Command Area Development and Forest Conservation Programme
(c) Command Area Development and Pollution Control Programme
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
28. Consider the following statements:
A. The coverage of Integrated Child Development Programme is limited and often the youngest children in the 0-3 year age group get left out of its ambit.
B. According to ICMR, at any given time, 7-15% of Indian children suffer from mental disorder
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (b)
29. Which group of infrastructure industry has the highest gap in targets and achievements of production during the year 2006-07?
(a) Fished Steel
(b) Crude Petroleum
(c) Power
(d) Fertilizers
Ans. (a)
30. The National Horticulture Mission (NHM) has aimed at doubling the horticultural production. For this, the target year is
(a) 2010
(b) 2011
(c) 2012
(d) 2015
Ans. (c)
31 Consider the following agreements:
A. ISLFTA. (India -Sri Lanka Free Trade Agreement).
B. SAFTA (South Asia Free Trade Area).
C. CECA (Comprehensive Economic Co-operation Agreement between India and Singapore).
D. SAPTA (South Asia Preferential Trade Area).
Which one of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above agreements?
(a) A, C, B, D
(b) D, A, B, C
(c) B, A, D, C
(d) A, B, C, D
Ans. (a)
32. Which region of India has the lowest Thermal Plant Load Factor (PLF) for thermal power generation in the year 2006-207?
(a) Northern
(b) Western
(c) North-Eastern
(d) Southern
Ans. (c)
33. Consider the following statements:
A. Varsha Bima, the rainfall insurance scheme, is managed by the Agricultural Insurance Company of India Ltd. (ATCIL).
B. The scheme was introduced during the 2007 south-west monsoon period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (a)
34. Thx on Banking Cash Transactions (withdrawals) over a certain threshold in a single day w introduced in the Union Budget of which year?
(a) 2002-03
(b) 2004-05
(c) 2005-06
(d) 2006-07
Ans. (c)
35. Who among the following has suggested migration to accrual accounting system from cash based accounting system in India?
(a) I.V. Reddy
(b) R.H. Patil
(c) D.N. Ghosh
(d) C. Rangarajan
Ans. (c)
36. In which of the following years was the tax revenue as a percentage of GDP the lowest?
(a) 2002-03
(b) 2003-04
(c) 2004-05
(d) 2005-06
Ans. (a)
37. Which one of the following is the proportion of rain-fed agriculture to the net sown area in India?
(a) 40%
(b) 50%
(c) 60%
(d) 72%
Ans. (a)
38. Consider the following statements about industrial relations on the basis of Economic Survey:
A. There was a constant decline in the number of strikes and lockouts during 2000-OS in India.
B. The maximum number of strikes and lockouts in the year 2006 were experienced by Kerala, followed by Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) Both A and B
(d) Neither A nor B
Ans. (a)
39. What is a strategy which makes an all-out effort to provide the masses of people in India access to basic facilities such as health, education, clean drinking water, etc., termed as?
(a) Inclusive growth strategy
(b) Exclusive growth strategy
(c) Rapid growth strategy
(d) Balanced growth strategy
Ans. (a)
40. Which of the following sectors has the largest percentage share in India’s total exports for the period April 2006 October 2007?
(a) Chemicals and related goods
(b) Engineering goods
(c) Gems and jewellery
(d) Textiles including readymade garments
Ans. (b)
41. It Which sector has attracted highest FDI inflows during the period from August 1991 to September2006 (in % share)?
(a) Services sector
(b) Electrical equipments
(c) Telecommunications
(d) Transportation industry
Ans. (b)
42. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) External Debt / GDP ratio has declined consistently after the year 2003
(b) External Debt / GDP ratio has fluctuated after the year 2003
(c) External Debt/GOP ratio has increased after the year 2003
(d) External Debt/GDP ratio has remained constant after the year 2003
Ans (a)
43. NSSO regularly collects rural retail prices on monthly basis from selected markets for compilation of Consumer Price Index Number. Which one of the following is the correct pair of samples collected for the purpose?
(a) 403 villages and 39 urban centers
(b) 503 villages and 49 urban centers
(c) 603 villages and 59 urban centers
(d) 703 villages and 69 urban centers
Ans. (c)
44. Which one of the following is not proposed in the approach paper to the 11th Five Year Plan as important new social interventions?
(a) Provide freedom and resources to select institutions so that they attain global standards by the year 2011-12.
(b) Grant old age pension to the widows, handicapped and deserted and separated women.
(c) Ensure adequate representation of women in• elected bodies, State Legislatures, and the Parliament.
(d) Provide emergency obstetrics care facilities within 2 hours travel from every habitat.
Ans. (d)
45. Which of th€ following statements pertaining to the strategy to raise agricultural output during the 11th Five Year Plan, are correct?
A. Double the rate of growth of irrigated area.
B. Improve water management, rain water harvesting and watershed development.
C. Provide easy access to credit at affordable rates.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A and B
(b) B and C
(c) A and C
(d) A, B and C
Ans. (a)
46.. With one area of infrastructure is not included in Bharat Nirman Scheme (2005-09)?
(a) Irrigation
(b) Rural roads
(c) Rural health
(d) Rural housing
Ans. (c)
47. Which of the following is/are not monitorable target(s) for the 11th Five Year Plan?
A. Accelerate growth rate of GDP to 10% by the end of the plan and then maintain it in the 12th Five Year Plan.
B. Double per capita income by 201647.
C. Create 20 million new work opportunities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) A only
(b) B only
(c) C only
(d) B and C
Ans. (c)
1. Which of the following are true regarding the U.N.?
1. It promotes world peace.
2. It fosters free trade.
3. It encourages socialism.
4. It secures, disarmament.
(a) 1 and 4
(b 2 and 3
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d)1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
2. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
(a) Bangladesh
(b) Afghanistan
(c) Pakistan
(d) Nepal
(e) Bhutan
Ans. (b)
3. The United Nations is considered as a universal organisation. Which organ of the United nations fully represents the fact ?
(a) The General Assembly
(b) The Security Council
(c) The Economic and Social Council
(d) The Secretariat
Ans. (a)
4. G-15 is a group of
(a) developing countries
(b) developed countries
(c) non aligned countries
(d) Companies
Ans. (a)
5. Which org of the United Nations has ceased to be operational?
(a) Economic and Social Council
(b) Trusteeship Council
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Secretariat
Ans. (b)
6. The headquarters of UNESCO is at
(a) Rome
(b) Geneva
(c) Paris
(d) New York
Ans. (c)
7. The SAARC movement was launched for
(a) political alliances
(b) military strategy
(c) regional cooperation
(d) cultural exchanges
Ans. (c)
8. How many countries are presently members of the Non Aligned Movement?
(a) 118
(b) 119
(c) 110
(d) 107
Ans. (a)
9. Which of the following is used by the International Court of Justice in disputes concerning parian rights?
(a) Helsinki Agreement
(b) Paris Agreement
(c) Reykjavik Agreement
(d) Geneva Agreement
Ans. (c)
10. Which of the following international organizations has started the scheme Partnership for ‘Peace’ for a group of nations?
(a) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)
(b) Organisation of African Unity (OAU)
(c) Organ of Petroleum Exporting Countries(OPEC)
(d) Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP)
(e) South -East Asia Treaty Organisation (SEATO)
Ans. (a)
11. Which of the following are special agencies of the
1. WHO
2. OPEC
3. IMF
4.FAO
(a) l & 2
(b) 2 & 3
(c) l, 3 & 4
(d) 2, 3 & 4
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following describes correctly the Group of seven countries (G-7)?
(a) They are countries who can launch their own satellites.
(b) They are developing countries.
(c) They are industrialized countries.
(d) They are holding Atomic Bomb technology.
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
13 United Nations adopted a Charter of Economic Rights in the year
(a) 1956
(b) 1964
(c) 1969
(d) 1974
Ans. (d)
14. ICOMOS -International Council for Monuments and Sites, a wing of UNESCO, included which monument as world heritage?
(a) Khajuraho of Madhya Pradesh
(b) Sanchi Stupa
(c) Brihadisvara temple of Tamil Nadu
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
15. G-7 includes
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) Italy
(d) South Africa
Ans. (c)
16. Vietnam joined U.N.O in the year
(a) 1974
(b) 1976
(c) 1977
(b) 1970
Ans. (c)
17. What is the number of non -permanent members of the Security Council?
(a) 6
(b) 8
(c) 10
(d) 12
Ans. (c)
18. The international township built near Pondicherry in India in collaboration with NESCO is
(a) Broadway
(b) Gayaville
(c) Auroville
(d) Elbaville
Ans. (c)
19. The International Court of Justice is located at
(a) Geneva
(b) Hague
(c) Amsterdam
(d) Vienna
Ans. (b)
20. In acronym SAARC, ‘C stand for
(a) Committee
(b) Common wealth
(c) Conference
(d) Cooperation
Ans. (d)
21. Which of the following countries, is not a member of G-15?
(a) Jamaica
(b) Indonesia
(c) Peru
(d) Columbia
Ans. (d)
22. Permanent Secretariat to coordinate the implementation of SAARC programme is located at
(a) Dhaka
(b) New Delhi
(c) Colombo
(d) Kathmandu
Ans. (d)
23. Who was the first Indian to be the President of UN General Assembly?
(a) Ramesh Bhandari
(b) V.K. Krishna Menon
(c) Natwar Singh
(d) Mrs. Vijay Lakshmi Pandit
Ans. (d)
24. What is the main objective of the UN Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) at present?
(a) Providing UN assistance for cultural ex change among the countries located in Asia and Pacific region
(b) Reconstruction of war -devastated countries located in Asia and Pacific region
(c) Recommending UN assistance to the countries located in Asia and Pacific region
(d) Helping in social and economic development for the countries located in Asia and Pacific region
(a) 15
(b) 11
(c) 7
(d) 5
Ans. (d)
25. Which of the following is not a chief organ of the United Nations organizations?
(a) General Assembly
(b) Security Council
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) International Labour Organisation
Ans. (d)
26. OECD is engaged in which of the following activities?
(a) Privatization and reconstruction of the east block countries
(b) Environmental protection
(c) To optimize population growth in some European countries having negative population growth.
(d) Encouraging world trade and economic progress and aid under developed nations
Ans. (d)
27. The United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) is located at which of the following places?
(a) Vienna
(b) Rome
(c) Paris
(d) Geneva
(e) Montreal
Ans. (d)
28. The South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) has how many member countries?
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 10
Ans. (b)
29. The five permanent members of the UN Security Council are
(a) Canada, China, France, RUSSIA and U.S.A
(b) China, France, U.S.S R, U.K. and U.S.A
(c) Japan, Germany, RUSSIA., U.K. and U.S.A
(d) West Germany, China, RUSSIA., U.K. and U.S.A
Ans. (b)
30. Headquarters of the World Health Organisation is located at
(a) Rome
(b) New York
(c) Geneva
(d) Washington D.C.
Ans. (b)
31. The headquarters of the World Intellectual Property Organisation (WIPO) is located in which city?
(a) Paris
(b) New York
(c) Geneva
(d) Madrid
(e) Switzerland
Ans. (c)
32. Amnesty International has its headquarters at
(a) New York
(b) London
(c) Washington
(d) Berlin
Ans. (c)
33. How is the new membership of United Nations affected?
(a) The admission of any state as member will be affected by a decision of the Security Council on the recommendations of the General Assembly.
(b) The admission of any state as member will be affected by a decision of the General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council.
(c) The admission of any state as member will be affected by a decision of the Security Council and General Assembly.
(d) The admission of any state as member will be affected by a decision of new membership Council followed by a voting in General Assembly.
Ans. (b)
34. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
(a) Maldives
(b) Myanmar
(c) Bhutan
(d) Sri Lanka
Ans. (b)
35. When was SAARC founded?
(a) 1982 A.D.
(b) 1983 AD.
(c) 1984 AD.
(d) 1985 A.D.
Ans. (d)
36. Which of the following is not a member of G-7?
(a) Italy
(b) Japan
(c) Canada
(d) France
(e) Russia
Ans. (e)
37. Pakistan had pulled itself out of Commonwealth in the year
(a) 1972
(b) 1975
(c) 1978
(d) 1981
Ans. (a)
38. The working language (s) of the UNESCO is/are
(a) English only
(b) French only
(c) English and French
(d) English, French and Russian
Ans. (d)
39. Which of the following countries is not a member of Group 15 developing countries?
(a) Mexico
(b) Egypt
(c) Malaysia
(d) Brazil
(e) UK
Ans. (e)
40. The International Human Rights Convention adopted by the United Nations in 1990 relates to
(a) children
(b) disabled
(c) state less persons
(d) migrant workers
Ans. (a)
41. The first Secretary General of UNO was
(a) U .Thant
(b) Trygve Lie
(c) Kurt Waldheim
(d) Dag Hamarskjoeld
Ans. (b)
42. The main aim of SAARC is
(a) Peaceful Coexistence
(b) Regional cooperation
(c) Non -alignity
(d) Non -interference in other’s internal affairs
Ans. (b)
43. How many former republics of RUSSIA. have become members of the Commonwealth of Independent States?
(a) 9
(b) l0
(c) l1
(d)12
Ans. (c)
44 The Indian Red Cross Society was established in the year
(a) 1890
(b) 1920
(c) 1932
(d) 1945
Ans. (b)
45. The office of the UN General Assembly is
(a) Vienna
(b) Paris
(c) New York
(d) Zurich
Ans. (c)
46. The Economic and Social Commission for Asia and Pacific (ESCAP) is located at
(a) Bangkok
(b) Singapore
(c) Kuala Lumpur
(d) Manila
Ans. (a)
47. First Indian to make a speech in Hindi before the UN General Assembly is
(a) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(b) A.B. Vajpayee
(c) Lal Krishna Advani
(d) Morarji Desai
Ans. (b)
48. Which one of the following statements regarding the ‘ power in the Security Council is correct according to the United Nations Charter?
(a) The decisions of the Security Council on all
non procedural matters must be made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members of the Council.
(b) Every permanent member of the Security Council can prevent any decision from being accepted, by vetoing it.
(c) The term veto was used in Article 27 of the United Nations Charter to enable any per permanent member of the Security Council to prevent any resolution from being passed by the majority.
(d) Any member of the Security Council can prevent any resolution from being passed by
voting against it.
Ans. (b)
49. The following persons had served as Secretary Generals of the U.N.
1. Trygve Lie
2. Dag Hamarskjoeld
3. U. Thant
4. Kurt Waldheim
The correct chronological order in which they held that post is
(a)1,2,3,4
(b) 1,2,4,3
(c) 2,1,3,4
(d) 2;l,4,3
Ans. (a)
50. People’s Republic of China was awarded China’s seat in the United Nations by UN General Assembly Resolution 2758 in year
(a)1968
(b) 1969
(c) 1970
(d) 1971
(d)
SYLLABUS OF SSC Sub Inspector CPOs Exam
: Written Examination. Paper-I : 200 Questions
General Intelligence and Reasoning
General Knowledge and General Awareness
Numerical Aptitude
English Comprehension
Paper-II
English language & Comprehension
200 questions
Sample paper For General Knowledge and General Awareness
1. Which city in India is the largest according to 1991 census?
(a) Delhi
(b) Calcutta
(c) Bombay
(d) Madras
Ans. (c)
2. If India’s population continues to grow at the rate of 2% per annum, the population will be doubled of its present size in next
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 40 years
Ans. (d)
3. Food grain production of India in million tones is nearest to the figure of
(a) 120
(b) 150
(c) 200
(d) 280
Ans. (c)
4. What is the correct descending order of the following states on the basis of their territorial area?
1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Bihar
3. Madhya Pradesh
4. Uttar Pradesh
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4
(b) 3, 4, 1, 2
(c) 3, 2, 4, 1
(d) 4, 3, 2, 1
Ans. (b)
5. India marked a negative growth rate of population in the census year
(a) 1901
(b) 191I
(c) 1921
(d) 195l
Ans. (c)
6. According to the recent census, which of the following is the approximate density of population of our country?
(a) 220
(b) 240
(c) 270
(d) 300
(e) 325
Ans. (c)
7. According to 1991 census, which of the following statements about literacy figures is not true?
(a) Only those above 7 years of age were considered for calculating the literacy rate.
(a) In absolute numbers there is an increase in the literate population.
(c) There is an increase in the population of illiterates.
(d) Kerala has the highest literacy rate.
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)
8. The population of India, as per the recent estimate, is increasing at an average rate of how many births per minute?
(a) 30
(b) 35
(c) 4l
(d) 48
Ans. (a)
9. Which one of the following groups of cities has crossed the 1000000 mark of population for the first time in 1991?
(a) Surat, Jaipur, Bhopal, Varanasi
(b) Jaipur. Patna, Varanasi, Madurai
(c) Surat, Coimbatore, Patna, Bhopal
(d) Lucknow, Nagpur. Cochin, Indore
Ans. (c)
10. In India, the adverse female-male ratio is due to
(a) female mortality
(b) death of women at pregnancy
(c) excess males at birth
(d) None of these
Ans. (d)
11. ‘Shankul’ is the name of
(a) India’s surface to a missile
(b) India’s newly developed main battle tank
(c) India’s second indigenously built submarine
(d) India’s second indigenously built missile boat
Ans. (c)
12. Which of the following animals was not native to India?
(a) Elephant
(b) Horse
(c) Rhinoceros
(d) Tiger
Ans. (b)
13. Jamshedpur is situated near river
(a) Ganga
(b) Kosi
(c) Mahanadi
(d) Damodar
(e) Subarnarekha
Ans. (e)
14. In which state of India dry farming is not practised?
(a) Assam
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following States is highly flood prone as well as drought prone?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Bihar
Ans. (c)
16. ………….the world’s last Shangri- La, nestled in the Himalayas, it is a jewel of environmental preservation. Its pristine forests, sparkling icy peaks and rare flora and fauna have caused the World Wildlife Fund to dub it as one of the ecological wonders of the world. The place referred to here is
(a) Ladakh
(b) Bhutan
(c) Sikkim
(d) Siachen
Ans. (a)
17. The confluence of Alakhananda and Bhagirathi takes place at
(a) Karnaprayag
(b) Devaprayag
(c) Rudraprayag
(d) Rishikesh
Ans. (b)
18. The Abors tribe is mainly found in
(a) Goa
(b) Kerala
(c) Assam
(d) Manipur
(e) Karnataka
Ans. (c)
19. Meghalaya is an exclusive tribal state of which of the following groups of tribals?
(a) Garos, Pangs and Himaro
(b) Khasis, Usharis and Lakhirs
(c) Khasis, Pawis and Maras
(d) Khasis, Jaintias and Gatos
(e) Jaintias, Gatos and Kurkis
Ans. (d)
20. The Indian subcontinent was originally part of a huge landmass called?
(a) Gondwana continent
(b) Indiana
(c) Jurassic land mass
(d) Aryavarta
Ans. (a)
21. Which city is on the banks of Kaveri?
(a) Mysore
(b) Bangalore
(c) Madras
(d) Hyderabad
(e) Tiruchirapalli
Ans. (e)
22. The indigenously developed multi barrel rocket system is known as
(a) Agni
(b) Arjun
(c) Sankul
(d) Pinaka
Ans. (d)
23. Consider the following factors:
1. Sedimentation of the channel
2. Shrinkage of the hinterland
3. Low discharge of river Hooghly
Calcutta port is considered to be a problem port because of
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) l and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
24. The famous Vale of Kashmir refers to
(a) a longitudinal valley in the Himalayas
(b) a valley which had been a lake till Pleistocene
(c) occupying an anticline on the back of a nappe
(d) all the above
Ans. (b)
25. The southern part of India is considered to be less prone to earthquake because
(a) it has a thick layer of heavy lava.
(b) it has a rigid stable block.
(c) it has old crystalline igneous rocks.
(d) it is a rigid unstable block.
Ans. (b)
26. Sardar Sarovar Project is a part of
(a) Silent Valley Project
(b) Damodar Valley Project
(c) Canal Project
(d) Narmada Sagar Valley Project
Ans. (d)
27. Arunachal Pradesh, has borders with
(a) Bangladesh, China and Myanmar
(b) Bhutan, China and Myanmar
(c) Bhutan, China and Bangladesh
(d) Bhutan, Bangladesh and Myanmar
Ans. (b)
28. The Kakrapar Atomic Power Plant has been supplying electricity to all the members of which of the following groups of states?
(a) Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa
(b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra
(c) Madhya Pradesh, Orissa, Rajasthan
(d) Gujarat, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
(e) Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh
Ans. (d)
29. A tourist flying between two cities in India observed the following vegetation types in that order:
1. Monsoon forests
2. Deciduous forests
3. Mangrove forests
(a) Madras to Calcutta
(b) Bombay to Madras
(c) Goa to Calcutta
(d) Thiruvanantapuram to Goa
Ans. (b)
30. In 1967, an earthquake took place at
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) Cachar
(d) Koyna
Ans. (d)
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1. As per 1991 census reports, which of the following is not true?
(a) The country’s population was enumerated at 844 million.
(b) India and China together account for more than 1/3rd of the world’s population.
(c) There is a deterioration in the number of females per thousand males
(d) Average annual population growth rate is 2.35 percent
(e) None of these.
Ans. (d)
2. The area declared as a ‘Biosphere Reserve’ is
(a) Nilgiris
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Nokrek
(d) Manas
Ans. (a)
3. Which state has proportionately the largest area covered by forests?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland
Ans. (c)
4. Which of the following statements regarding the natural vegetation of India are true?
1. The high rainfall areas have dense tropical forests.
2. The moderate rainfall areas have monsoon forests.
3. The low rainfall areas have temperate grasslands.
(a) l, 2, 3
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)
5. The tropical ever forest in India is found in
(a) Kerala
(b) Gujarat
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans. (b)
6. Canal irrigation is largely practised in
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)
7. The Himalayas are formed by
(a) orogenic forces
(b) centrifugal forces
(c) tectonic forces
(d) epirogenic forces
Ans. (c)
8. The Indian Wild Ass, largely confined to the Rann of Kutch, is fast becoming an endangered species because of
(a) insufficient vegetation
(b) large scale domestication
(c) excessive depredation
(d) poaching
Ans. (a)
9. The dense vegetation in Rajasthan is found in
(a) the Chambal valley
(b) Central Rajasthan
(c) along the Indira Gandhi canal
(d) Aravalli ranges
Ans. (d)
10. The most important fisheries in India are
(a) off-shore
(b) natural inland
(c) deep sea
(d) cultural inland
Ans. (a)
11. Indian forests with conifers are largely distributed in the state of
(a) Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, UP.
(b) M.P., Maharashtra, Kerala
(c) Assam, West Bengal, Gujarat
(d) Tripura, Orissa, Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)
12. Which of the following river groups flows into the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Narmada, Ganga, Bhramaputra
(b) Krishna, Godavari, Tapti
(c) Ganga, Yamuna, Ravi
(d) Godavari, Bhramaputra, Ganga
(e) Kaveri, Krishna, Narmada
Ans. (d)
13. India’s first launch vehicle SLV-3 was launched from SHAR centre at
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Car Nicobar
(c) Sriharikota
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
14. The Korba, the Super Thermal Power Station, which has become the largest in the country, is located in
(a) Goa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (b)
15. Among the marine fishes of Bombay, one of the common variety is
(a) Mackerel
(b) Sardine
(c) Catfish
(d) Soles
Ans. (a)
16. To which of the following types does the natural vegetation in the Western Ghats belong?
(a) Deciduous
(b) Alpine
(c) Evergreen
(d) Mangrove
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)
17. The state of Madhya Pradesh has common borders with
(a) 5 states
(b) 6 states
(c) 7 states
(d) 8 states
Ans. (d)
18 The only state in India to have a common border with the state of Sikkim is
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) West Bengal
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (c)
19. Indira Gandhi Canal originates from
(a) Gandhi Sagar Dam
(b) Hirakud Dam
(c) Harike barrage
(d) Bhakra Dam
Ans. (c)
20. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Kolhapur : Maharashtra
(b) Shimoga : Kerala
(c) Allepey : Karnataka
(d) Murshidabad : Gujarat
Ans. (a)
21. In the Deccan peninsula, the natural vegetation is mainly controlled by
(a) altitude.
(b) soil conditions
(c) rainfall
(d) irrigation
Ans. (c)
22. Marble is mainly found in
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (d)
23. Which one of the following was earlier known as the Lushai Hills District?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Tripura
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram
Ans. (d)
24. Which of the following is the largest district of Rajasthan?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Bikaner
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Jaisalmer
Ans. (d)
25. Which of the following states has the maximum urban population?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal
Ans. (a)
26. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Nasik : Gujarat
(b) Ernakulam : Andhra Pradesh
(c) Bolangir : Orissa
(d) Mandya : Rajasthan
Ans. (c)
27. India’s feeder airline is known as
(a) l. A
(b) Vayudoot
(c) Air Asiatic
(d) U.B. Air
Ans. (b)
28. In Rajasthan, rich deposits of marble mostly occur in the district of
(a) Ajmer
(b) Kota
(c) Nagaur
(d) Bikaner
Ans. (c)
29. The Terai areas of North India have over- abundance of surface water because of
(a) the heavy rains throughout the year
(b) abundance of natural springs
(c) rivers with flat valleys spread water over large areas
(d) large scale seepage of water from Bhabars in north
Ans. (b)
30. I. R. S – l B is
(a) a research station set up by India in Antarctica
(b) an Indian space station in Bangalore
(c) an Indian remote sensing satellite
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
31. Obra, where a large thermal power station has been built, is in
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar
Ans. (c)
32. Which of the following mountain ranges is spread over only one state in India?
(a) Sahyadri
(b) Ajanta
(c) Satpura
(d) Aravalli
Ans. (b)
33. River Chambal flows through
(a) U.P., Rajasthan and Gujarat
(b) U.R, M.P. and Bihar
(c) U.P., M.P. and Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra, UP. and Gujarat
Ans. (c)
34. Which of the following best describes Vikram Immarsat?
(a) India’s first indigenously built satellite
(b) India’s newly acquired RADAR system
(c) India’s first Inter Continental Ballistic Missile
(d) India’s first satellite mobile communication land-earth station
Ans. (d)
35. India’s first Ladies Special’ suburban train was started by which of the following zones of Indian Railways?
(a) Northern
(b) Central
(c) Western
(d) Southern
(e) Eastern
Ans. (c)
36. The most advanced launch vehicle in India incorporating cryo-engine technology is going to be
(a) SLV
(b) ASLY
(c) GSLV
(d) PSLV
Ans. (c)
37. The Narmada originates in
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d Madhya Pradesh
(e) Karnataka
Ans. (d)
38. The Them dam is built on
(a) Sutlej
(b) Chenab
(c) Jhelum
(d) Ravi
Ans. (d)
39. Consider the following two statements:
1. Development of the Luni river in western Rajasthan is aided by the German Development Bank.
2. Some water supply projects in Kerala are assisted by the Dutch Government.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans. (c)
40. Given below is a list of ports of the western coast of India:
1. Marmugao
2. Ratnagiri
3. Quilon
4. Okha
Which of the following represents them in their logical order from north to south?
(a) l, 4, 2, 3
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 4, 2, 1, 3
Ans. (d)
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1. Which of the following missiles and their respective ranges have been paired wrongly here?
(a) Akash – 27 km
(b) Nag – 2500 km
(c) Prithvi – 150 km
(d) Trishul – 9km
Ans. (c)
2. India’s first nuclear explosion was conducted in
(a) Trombay, Maharashtra
(b) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
(c) Pokharan, Rajasthan
(d) Rann of Kutch, Gujarat
Ans. (c)
3. Match of the following:-
Tribe State
A. Bhils 1. Bihar
B. Santhals 2. Rajasthan
C. Todas 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Gonds 4. Tamil Nadu
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3.
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (d)
4. Paradeep is a
(a) thermal power station
(b) port on the eastern coast of India
(c) port on the western coast of India
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)
5. The missile ‘Agni’ was launched from
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Orissa
Ans. (d)
6. The indigenously built missile recently inducted into the Indian Army is known as
(a) Akash
(b) Agni
(c) Trishul
(d) Prithvi
Ans. (d)
7. All the following cities are located on the banks of river Ganga except
(a) Calcutta
(b) Kanpur
(c) Haridwar
(d) Mathura
Ans. (d)
8. India’s biggest nuclear research reactor is known as
(a) Purnima
(b) Apsara
(c) Dhruva
(d) Cirus
Ans. (c)
9. India’s first long range missile is
(a) Nag
(b) Trishul
(c) Prithvi
(d) Agni
Ans. (d)
10. Which one of the following places is well known for diamond cutting and polishing industry?
(a) Surat
(b) Jaipur
(c) Kanchipurarn
(d) Bombay
Ans. (b)
11. NEFA is the old name of
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Nagaland
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (d)
12. From the following, the tribals of Tamil Nadu living in Nilgiris are
(a) Uralis
(b) Kolam
(c) Todas
(d) Chenchus
Ans. (c)
13. Nilgiri, Himgiri and Beas are
(a) aircraft carrier ships
(b) frigates
(c) nuclear submarines
(d) Oil tankers of ONGC
Ans. (b)
14. Kaiga in Karnataka is famous for
(a) nuclear plant
(b) ancient fort
(c) fertilizer plant
(d) cement plant
Ans. (a)
15. Kuki Tribes which were recently in the news, are mainly inhabited in which of the following states?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Manipur
(c) Assam
(d) Sikkim
(e) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (b)
16. Which one of the following is not situated on the bank of river Godavari?
(a) Nanded
(b) Khammam
(c) Rajamundry
(d) Nasik
Ans. (b)
17. The ballistic missile Agni tested by India has a maximum range of
(a) 1000 km
(b) 1500 km
(c) 2000 km
(d) 2500 km
Ans. (b)
18. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is
(a) iron & steel plants
(b) roadways
(c)railways
(d) airways
Ans. (c)
19. Which is India’s main battle tank inducted in the army recently?
(a) Trishul
(b) Arjun
(c) Nag
(d) Lakshya
Ans. (b)
20. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in decreasing other of the population sizes of the given cities as per the 1991 census.
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras, Delhi
(b) Bombay, Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
(c) Calcutta, Bombay, Delhi, Madras
(d) Bombay, Calcutta, Delhi, Madras
Ans. (d)
21. Which of the following states has achieved the highest literacy rate?
(a) Haryana
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (c)
22. During the 1981-1991 period, the population of which one of the following states had registered the maximum growth rate?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Sikkim
Ans. (c)
23. Which of the following is the second most literate state?
(a) Kerala
(b) West Bengal
(c) Karnataka
(d) Mizoram
Ans. (d)
24. What is the approximate literacy rate as per 1991 data?
(a) 43%
(b) 48%
(c) 53%
(d) 58%
(e) 65%
Ans. (c)
25. According to the recent survey, -which state has the highest per capita income?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Delhi
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (c)
26. The total population of India according to 1991 census is
(a) 841 million
(b) 842 million
(c) 843 million
(4) 844 million
Ans. (d)
27. Which one of the following is correctly matched in the light of 1991 census?
(a) Andhra Pradesh : Land-man ratio is lowest
(b) West Bengal : Sex ratio is highest
(c) Kerala : Density of population is highest
(d) Tamil Nadu : Sex ratio is lowest
Ans. (a)
28. According to the figures of the 1991 census, the total male population in India was nearly
(a) 30.7 crore
(b) 35.7 crore
(c) 43.7 crore
(d) 45.7 crore
Ans. (c)
29. Which of the following states has the slowest rate of population growth as per 1991 census?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Goa
(d) Nagaland
Ans. (b)
30. Which one of the following is the group of states that have shown a net rise in population during 1981 – 91 according to 1991 census?
(a) Punjab, Gujarat and Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra, Gujarat and Kerala
(4) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Punjab
Ans. (d)
31. As per the recent data available (1991 census), which of the following represents the national average of tribal literacy in India?
(a) 10.92%
(b) 16.85%
(c) 19,90%
(d) 20.35%
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)
32. The population of India as per 1991 census reports is increasing at an average annual rate of
(a) 2.11
(b) 2.35
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.7
Ans. (a)
33. In India, women workers constitute approximately what percent of the total women population as per the latest figures available (1991 census)
(a) 21.40 %
(b) 22.69 %
(c) 26.80 %
(d) 31.74 %
(e) 42.26 %
Ans. (b)
34. Among the following groups of states, which one is having literacy rate in the range of 38% – 44%?
(a) Rajasthan, West Bengal, UP., Bihar
(b) Bihar, Karnataka, U.P., M.P
(c) Bihar, UP., M.P, Rajasthan
(d) Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Orissa
Ans. (c)
35. The growth rate of population in India between 1981 and 1991 was
(a) 19.95%
(b) 23.85%
(c) 27.15%
(d) 31.85%
Ans. (b)
36. According to the recent survey, which state has the highest per capita income?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Delhi
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (c)
37. Which of the following states in India is least populated as per the l991 census?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Nagaland
(c) Goa
(d) Sikkim
(e) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (e)
38. Ratio of women to men in India according to 1991 census is
(a) 0.921
(b) 0:929
(c) 0.936
(d) 0.942
Ans. (a)
39. As per the 1991 census, Kerala registered the lowest fertility rate among the states in India.
This has been attributed to the
(a) small population of child-bearing age
(b) high overall literacy rate
(c) high rate of literacy among women
(d) high level of urbanization
Ans. (b)
40. As per the 1991 census, what percentage of the total population was in the urban areas?
(a) 11
(b) 18
(c) 21
(d) 25
(e) 26
Ans. (e)
1. In a ckt. We are giving voltage of 50 Hz as well as 60. then what will be the resultant frequency.
· less than 50
· more than 60
· in between 50 & 60
· none
according to our conclusion answer will be none because if we apply two frequency component resultant frequency we can not say with such an ease. U should confirm the answer
2. In a ckt a single resistor is connected across a d.c. source, what will be the effect on current in first resistor if we connect one more resistance in parallel with earlier one.
Answer.. no change since it is a parallel combination.
3. why we don,t like flashover in transmission line (t-line)-
(a ) it may create earth fault(b )it reduces the life of insulator..
4.total no of strands in a acsr conductor is 81, then what is the no. of conductor in its outer layer..(a)36 (b)18 (c)24..Also read some more on acsr.
5.Two questions based on p.u. calculation like , p.u. calculation is given with respect to some old base and u have to calculate it with reference to new base.
(new resistance/old)=(mva new /mva old)*(old voltage/new voltage)2.
Other question is based upon transfer of p.u calculation in transformer i.e. how base changes when we we move from primary to secondary or like wise.read some more on p.u calculation.
6.which table is referred for sag calculation-
(a)stringing chart..answer
7.in a R-L ckt a ac voltage is applied , such that instantaneous power is negative for 2ms, then what will be the power factor.
a) 9 deg, (b) 18 deg, (c) 36 Deg.
8. In an incandescent lamp
(a) luminous intensity is more than non-luminous intensity
Ans: Since efficiency is less than 100%, hence ans is (b), u should confirm it further.
9. In which motor no-load to full-load diff. is lowest
(a) series motor, (b) shunt motor, (c) Compound motor
Ans: (b)
10. In a 60Hz induction motor full load speed is 850 rpm then what is the Synchronous speed. (a) 900 rpm, (b) 950 rpm, (c) 1600 rpm
Ans: (a)
11. A sync. Motor is running at synch. Speed, if al of sudden D.C. excitation is removed, then
(a) it will rotate at slip speed, (b) it will stop, (c) it will continue to rotate at sync. Speed
Ans: (a), because actually it will acts as Induction motor.
12. A transmission line is designed for 50Hz, 440KV. If we want to transfer power at 60Hz, 440 KV, then the power transfer capability will
(a) decrease, (b) Increase, (c)None
Ans: (a) ..as P=( |Vt| |Ef| sin (delta) ) / X, where (delta) is torque angle.
13. Increased rotor resistance in rotor ckt of induction motor is related with
(a) high starting torque, (b) more speed variation,
Ans: (a)
14. In the formulae E = 4.44 f N ?, ? is
(a) Avg value, (b) Rms value, (c) Maximum value
Ans: (a)
15. Voltage & current in a ckt is given by V= V1+j V2 and I= I1 +j I2, then rms power is (refer book by Edministrator on NETWORK ..)
16. Input impedence of MOSFET is
(a) more than BJT..(Ans)
17, 18. Remember truth table of AND, NOR, NAND, OR, EX-OR ETC
19. Conversion of Binary number into Equivalent decimal No.
20. Megger is used for the measurement of (a) Insulation resistance, (b) Conductor resistance
Ans: (a)
21. Form factor for sinusoidal as well as DC
22. Formulae of Regulation (Vs- Vr)* 100/ Vr, then transmission line is
(a) short transmission line, (b) long, (c) medium
Ans: (a)
23. Improvement in power factor reduces
(a) power consumed by consumer, (b) power generation, (c) both a & b
Ans: (c)
24. Read about field test of Series Motor
25. No-load test for Synchronous motor, the graph is drawn
(a) stator open ckt emf Vs field current (Ans: a)
26. An AC voltage of 50Hz is impressed in a resistive ckt, the oscillating power has a frequency (a) 50 Hz, (b) 100, (c) no oscillating power is there in resistive ckt
Ans: (a)
27. Insulation used in transformer ___________leakage flux.
(a) increases, (b) decreases Ans: (b)
28.After rain what happens to Insulator (a) break-down strength of Insulator decreases, (b)Arch length reduces,
Ans: (b)
29.Diversity factor helps to . . . .(what ?)
[Read diversity factor, load factor, Reserve capacity factor in depth, with calculation]
30. Why capacitance is shown as a Shunt element in analysis of transmission line
(a) it is between Conductor & earth, (b) because Admittance is used for calculation of capacitive reactance
Ans: (a)
31. B-R-Y sequence is followed in three phase system, if phase voltage in B-phase is Vm sin 100, then the phase voltage in R-phase would be (a) Vm sin (-20)
Ans:(a)
32. In a particular ckt I = Im Sin (wt -270) and V = Vm Sin wt, then type of ckt is (a) pure resistive ckt [Ans]
33. In a L-R ckt energy lost = 2000 W, energy conserved = 500W, then what is the time constant
Ans: time constant = L/R = 0.5
34. In electro-dynamometer A'meter & wattmeter the type of scale is Ans:Non-uniform
35. For the same current carrying capacity corona loss of ACSR will be ________than copper conductor. (a) more, (b) less, (c) equal
Ans:(b)
36. A R-C ckt , supplied with DC, a bulb is connected across the Capacitor, then what happens to the illumination, if we change the capacitance.
Ans: No change at all
37. Read about surge impendence of over-head and under-ground cable, Surge impedence formula = sqrt(L/C)
We are not mentioning the options in sequence, and do not think that ans for the most questions is option (a). Read all options very carefully as all are very close to each other.
QUANTITATIVE PAPER + PCM paper
1. About 10 quanti questions ( based on Mixture, Work etc. of very easy type)
2. What is GDP ?
3. Vector algebra, codition for Co-planer vector etc.
4. Gravitation, geo-synchronous satellite( it's hight, orbit , radius etc.), escape velocity, how g (gravitational accln) varies, about gravitational potential.
5. Basic electricity and Magnetism----Biot-savart law, current carrying conductor properties.
6. Nuclear physics, Bohr's constant, and Other theories related .
7. Problem based on VIBGYOR , how wave length and frequency is varying.
8. Questions based on Plank's Theory, E =hv
9. V=u + at , V2=u2 + 2as and W = mgh questions based on above theory
10. Faraday's laws of electrolysis, m = Zit
11. Heat conduction problem.
12. Co lour-coding of resistor (BBROYGBVGW)
13. How velocity of light changes in different medium while frequency remain unchanged.
14. statistics , calculation of mode, co-efficient regression (3-4 Questions)
15. f(x) = Sin x + Cos x, find the maximum value of the function
16. Formulae for parallel plate capacitor and force between plates.
